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Fernando Pessoa
"O mar com fim será grego ou romano: O mar sem fim é português."
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Yes. Uvular 'r' became standard in French in the early 19th century but still in the mid-20th many people routinely rolled their r's, especially in some provinces like Burgundy, Berry, Maine and Lower Normandy, as well as the whole South-West.
But at some point this became stereotyped and ridiculed as peasant speech, in the 60/70's (*). Now rolled 'r' is in terminal decline in France. A similar evolution started short after in Quebec.
(*)Two songs from that era, making fun of farmers and common countryside people:
[youtube]R0yjtl_sZJo[/youtube]
[youtube]mQ-EBbjmkLk[/youtube]
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I agree.
No question Gaulish survived in Brittany, at the very least, residually after the migrations from southern Britain. At least one other French person contributing to the thread who is knowledgable on the subject concurs.
Bottom line: it's likely that Breton was impacted in some way by Gaulish.
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Why is there "no question"?
It would appear that the last surviving pockets of Gaulish were in the far north-east of France, and in the centre. Both a very long way from Brittany.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gaulish#History
Celtic culture in Brittany is an import from Britain (there's a clue in the name, you see). An unpalatable fact for some, no doubt, but true nevertheless.
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Wrong!
Roman presence was (logically) intense in the Mediterranean part of France, and more generally in the Southern half of the country (except for the mountainous districts of Auvergne), and was very important too in the North-East, for obvious strategical reasons, in front of the Germanic build-up along the Rhine.
But in the West/Northwest (Brittany, Maine, Anjou, Touraine, Normandy, Picardy, that weren't of any strategic value) there was little to no Roman presence. Consequently, if there was any region able to retain some Celtic culture for a longer time than elsewhere, it had to be there.
Thanks for playing, try again, good luck next time.
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It sounds like Brazilian
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(I didn't read all the pages so what I say may have been suggested already)
I think that if any other language did influence the nasalisation of Portuguese it was French. When I went to Portugal and looked at some of the language, it surprised me the French influence on the vocabulary (much more so than e.g. in Spanish). Perhaps French could have influenced?
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The writing influence is not French, but Occitan (close enough). Some of the writing forms were intruduced by an Occitan who became Bishop of Braga in 1100.
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